WBJEE · Maths · Definite Integration
If \(M=\int_{0}^{n / 2} \frac{\cos x}{x+2} d x, N=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{\sin x \cos x}{(x+1)^{2}} d x,\) then
the value of \(M-N\) is
- A \(\pi\)
- B \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
- C \(\frac{2}{\pi-4}\)
- D \(\frac{2}{\pi+4}\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(D) \(\frac{2}{\pi+4}\)
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
Given, \(M=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos x}{(x+2)} d x\) \(\begin{aligned} \text { and } \quad N &=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{\sin x \cos x}{(x+1)^{2}} d x \\ &=\int_{0}^{\pi / 4} \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{\sin 2 x}{(x+1)^{2}} d x \end{aligned}\) Put…
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