WBJEE · Maths · Basic of Mathematics
If \(x=1+\frac{1}{2 \times 1 !}+\frac{1}{4 \times 2 !}+\frac{1}{8 \times 3 !}+\ldots\) and
\(y=1+\frac{x^{2}}{1 !}+\frac{x^{4}}{2 !}+\frac{x^{6}}{3 !}+\ldots\)
Then, the value of loge \(y\) is
- A \(e\)
- B \(\mathrm{e}^{2}\)
- C 1
- D \(\frac{1}{e}\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(A) \(e\)
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
Given, \(x=1+\frac{1}{2 \times 1 !}+\frac{1}{4 \times 2 !}+\frac{1}{8 \times 3 !}+\ldots\) \(\Rightarrow \quad x=1+\frac{(1 / 2)^{\prime}}{1 !}+\frac{(1 / 2)^{2}}{2 !}+\frac{(1 / 2)^{3}}{3 !}+\ldots\) \(\Rightarrow \quad x=e^{1 / 2} \Rightarrow x^{2}=e\) and…
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