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WBJEE · Maths · Functions

If the function \(f: R \rightarrow R\) is defined by \(f(x)=\left(x^{2}+1\right)^{35}, \forall x \in R,\) then \(f\) is

  1. A one-one but not onto
  2. B onto but not one-one
  3. C neither one-one nor onto
  4. D both one-one and onto
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(C) neither one-one nor onto

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

Given, \(f(x)=\left(x^{2}+1\right)^{35}, \forall x \in R\) Since, \(f(x)\) is even function. Hence, the function is not one-one. And \(f(x)>0, y \times \epsilon R\) Hence, the function is not onto. Given, the function is neither one-one nor onto.
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