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JEE Advanced · Mathematics · 25. AOD

Let \(f(x)\) be a non-constant twice differentiable function defined on \((-\infty, \infty)\), such that \(f(x)=f(1-x)\) and \(f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)=0\). Then,

  1. A
    \(f^{\prime}(x)\) vanishes atleast twice on \([0,1]\)
  2. B
    \(f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=0\)
  3. C
    \(\int_{\frac{1}{2}}^{\frac{1}{2}} f\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right) \sin x d x=0\)
  4. D
    \(\int_0^{\frac{1}{2}} f(t) e^{\sin \pi t} d t=\int_{\frac{1}{2}}^1 f(1-t) e^{\sin \pi t} d t\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(A)
\(f^{\prime}(x)\) vanishes atleast twice on \([0,1]\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

Given that, \(f(x)=f(1-x)\)
On differentiating w.r.t. \(x\), we get
\[
f^{\prime}(x)=-f^{\prime}(1-x)
\]
Let us put \(\quad x=\frac{1}{2}\)
\[
\Rightarrow \quad 2 f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=0 \Rightarrow f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=0
\]
Since, \(f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=0\) and \(f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)=0\)
\(\Rightarrow f^{\prime \prime}(x)=0\) at two points in \([0,1]\).
Now, \(\int_{-1 / 2}^{1 / 2} f\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right) \sin x d x=0\)
As, \(f\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right) \sin x\) is an odd function which is clear from the following explanation.
Let \(g(x)=f\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right) \sin x\),
\[
g(-x)=f\left(\frac{1}{2}-x\right) \sin (-x)=-\sin x f\left(1-\left(\frac{1}{2}-x\right)\right)=-\sin x f\left(\frac{1}{2}+x\right)=-g(x)
\]
Moreover, \(\int_{1 / 2}^1 f(1-t) e^{\sin (\pi t)} d t=\int_0^{1 / 2} f(u) \cdot e^{\sin \pi u} d u\) where, \(1-t=u\).
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