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AP EAMCET · Maths · Functions

If \(f(x)=e^x ; g(x)=\ln (x)\) for all \(x \in[1, \infty)\), then \(f \circ g\) is ____

  1. A A one-one function
  2. B An onto function
  3. C Not a function
  4. D Bijective
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(D) Bijective

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

For \(x \in[1, \infty), f(x)=e^x\) and \(g(x)=\ln x\) \(\therefore(f \circ g)(x)=e^{\ln x}=x, x \in[1, \infty)\) is a bijective function. Hence, option (d) is correct.