AP EAMCET · Maths · Functions
If \(f(x)=e^x ; g(x)=\ln (x)\) for all \(x \in[1, \infty)\), then \(f \circ g\) is ____
- A A one-one function
- B An onto function
- C Not a function
- D Bijective
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(D) Bijective
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
For \(x \in[1, \infty), f(x)=e^x\) and \(g(x)=\ln x\) \(\therefore(f \circ g)(x)=e^{\ln x}=x, x \in[1, \infty)\) is a bijective function. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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