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AP EAMCET · Maths · Differentiation

If \(f(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc}\cos x & x & 1 \\ 2 \sin x & x^2 & 2 x \\ \tan x & x & 1\end{array}\right|\), then the value of \(f^{\prime}(x)\) at \(x=0\) is equal to

  1. A -1
  2. B 1
  3. C 2
  4. D 0
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(D) 0

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

\begin{aligned} & \text { Given, } f(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc} \cos x & x & 1 \\ 2 \sin x & x^2 & 2 x \\ \tan x & x & 1 \end{array}\right| \\ & \therefore \quad f^{\prime}(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc} -\sin x & 1 & 0 \\ 2 \sin x & x^2 & 2 x \\ \tan x & x & 1…