AP EAMCET · Maths · Determinants
If \(f(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc}2 \cos x & 1 & 0 \\ x-\frac{\pi}{2} & 2 \cos x & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 \cos x\end{array}\right|\) then \(f^{\prime}(\pi)\) is equal to
- A 0
- B 2
- C \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
- D \(\pi-6\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(B) 2
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
\(f(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc}2 \cos x & 1 & 0 \\ x-\frac{\pi}{2} & 2 \cos x & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 \cos x\end{array}\right|\) \(f^{\prime}(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc}-2 \sin x & 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 2 \cos x & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 \cos x\end{array}\right|\)…
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