WBJEE · Maths · Definite Integration
If \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dx}}\{\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})\}=\mathrm{g}(\mathrm{x})\), then \(\int_a^b \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{g}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{dx}\) is equal to
- A \(\frac{1}{2}\left[\mathrm{f}^2(\mathrm{~b})-\mathrm{f}^2(\mathrm{a})\right]\)
- B \(\frac{1}{2}\left[\mathrm{~g}^2(\mathrm{~b})-\mathrm{g}^2(\mathrm{a})\right]\)
- C \(f(b)-f(a)\)
- D \(\frac{1}{2}\left[\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{b}^2\right)-\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{a}^2\right)\right]\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\left[\mathrm{f}^2(\mathrm{~b})-\mathrm{f}^2(\mathrm{a})\right]\)
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
Hints \(: f(x)=\int g(x) d x\) \[ \begin{aligned} & \int_a^b f(x) \cdot g(x) \cdot d x=(f(x) f(x))_a^b-\int_a^b g(x) f(x) d x \\ & I=f^2(b)-f^n(a)^{-1} \\ & I=\frac{1}{2}\left(f^2(b)-f^2(a)\right) \end{aligned} \]
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