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WBJEE · Maths · Definite Integration

If \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dx}}\{\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})\}=\mathrm{g}(\mathrm{x})\), then \(\int_a^b \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{g}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{dx}\) is equal to

  1. A \(\frac{1}{2}\left[\mathrm{f}^2(\mathrm{~b})-\mathrm{f}^2(\mathrm{a})\right]\)
  2. B \(\frac{1}{2}\left[\mathrm{~g}^2(\mathrm{~b})-\mathrm{g}^2(\mathrm{a})\right]\)
  3. C \(f(b)-f(a)\)
  4. D \(\frac{1}{2}\left[\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{b}^2\right)-\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{a}^2\right)\right]\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\left[\mathrm{f}^2(\mathrm{~b})-\mathrm{f}^2(\mathrm{a})\right]\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

Hints \(: f(x)=\int g(x) d x\) \[ \begin{aligned} & \int_a^b f(x) \cdot g(x) \cdot d x=(f(x) f(x))_a^b-\int_a^b g(x) f(x) d x \\ & I=f^2(b)-f^n(a)^{-1} \\ & I=\frac{1}{2}\left(f^2(b)-f^2(a)\right) \end{aligned} \]