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TS EAMCET · Maths · Indefinite Integration

\(\int \frac{x^{49} \tan ^{-1}\left(x^{50}\right)}{\left(1+x^{100}\right)} d x=k\left(\tan ^{-1}\left(x^{50}\right)\right)^2+c\), then \(k\) is equal to

  1. A \(\frac{1}{50}\)
  2. B \(-\frac{1}{50}\)
  3. C \(\frac{1}{100}\)
  4. D \(-\frac{1}{100}\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(C) \(\frac{1}{100}\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

Let \(I=\int x^{49} \frac{\tan ^{-1}\left(x^{50}\right)}{1+\left(x^{50}\right)^2} d x\) Let \(x^{50}=t \Rightarrow 50 x^{49} d x=d t\) \(\therefore \quad I=\frac{1}{50} \int \frac{\tan ^{-1} t}{1+t^2} d t\) Let \(\tan ^{-1} t=u \Rightarrow \frac{1}{1+t^2} d t=d u\)…
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