TS EAMCET · Maths · Functions
Let \(f: X \rightarrow Y\) be a function and \(A_y=\left\{\frac{f^{-1}(y)}{y \in Y}\right\}\). Then \(A_i \cap A_j=\dot{\phi}(i \neq j) \forall i, j \in Y\) and \(\bigcup_{y \in Y} A_y=X\), if
- A \(f\) is onto function only
- B \(f\) is one-one function only
- C \(f\) is any function
- D \(X\) and \(Y\) are finite sets only
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(C) \(f\) is any function
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
It is given that function \(f: X \rightarrow Y\) and \(A_y=\left\{\frac{f^{-1}(y)}{y \in Y}\right\}\) \(\because\) Inverse of the function exists, so function \(f\) is one-one and onto. then \(A_i \cap A_j=\phi,(i \neq j) \forall i, j \in Y\), and \(\bigcup A_y=X\) for every…
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