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TS EAMCET · Maths · Indefinite Integration

If \(\int f(x) \cos x d x=\frac{1}{2}[f(x))^2+C\) and \(f(0)=0\), then \(f^{\prime}(0)=\)

  1. A 1
  2. B -1
  3. C 0
  4. D 2
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(A) 1

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

We have, \[ \int f(x) \cos x d x=\frac{1}{2}\langle f(x))^2+C \] On differentiating w.r.t ' \(x\) ', we get…