TS EAMCET · Maths · Indefinite Integration
If \(\int f(x) \cos x d x=\frac{1}{2}[f(x))^2+C\) and \(f(0)=0\), then \(f^{\prime}(0)=\)
- A 1
- B -1
- C 0
- D 2
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(A) 1
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
We have, \[ \int f(x) \cos x d x=\frac{1}{2}\langle f(x))^2+C \] On differentiating w.r.t ' \(x\) ', we get…
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