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TS EAMCET · Maths · Determinants

If \(f(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc}2 \cos x & 1 & 0 \\ x-\frac{\pi}{2} & 2 \cos x & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 \cos x\end{array}\right|\) then \(f^{\prime}(\pi)\) is equal to

  1. A 0
  2. B 2
  3. C \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  4. D \(\pi-6\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(B) 2

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

\(f(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc}2 \cos x & 1 & 0 \\ x-\frac{\pi}{2} & 2 \cos x & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 \cos x\end{array}\right|\) \(f^{\prime}(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc}-2 \sin x & 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 2 \cos x & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 \cos x\end{array}\right|\)…