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JEE Mains · Maths · STD 11 - 7. binomial theoram

If \(\left({ }^{40} C _{0}\right)+\left({ }^{41} C _{1}\right)+\left({ }^{42} C _{2}\right)+\ldots+\left({ }^{\infty} C _{20}\right)=\frac{ m }{ n }{ }^{60} C _{20}, m\) and \(n\) are coprime, then \(m+n\) is equal to

  1. A \(102\)
  2. B \(103\)
  3. C \(104\)
  4. D \(105\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(A) \(102\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

\({ }^{40} C _{0}+{ }^{41} C _{1}+{ }^{42} C _{2}+\ldots . .{ }^{59} C _{19}+{ }^{60} C _{20}\) \(\left(\frac{1}{41}+1\right){ }^{41} C _{1}+{ }^{42} C _{2}+\ldots \ldots\) \(\left[\frac{42}{41}\left(\frac{2}{42}\right)+1\right]{ }^{42} C _{2}+{ }^{43} C _{3}+\ldots .\)…
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