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AP EAMCET · Maths · Definite Integration

If \(I_1=\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{x}{\sin x} d x\), and \(I_2=\int_0^1 \frac{\tan ^{-1} x}{x} d x\), then \(I_1: I_2\) is

  1. A \(1: 1\)
  2. B \(2: 1\)
  3. C \(3: 1\)
  4. D \(4: 1\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(B) \(2: 1\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

Given, \(I_1=\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{x}{\sin x} d x\) \[ I_2=\int_0^1 \frac{\tan ^{-1} x}{x} d x=\int_0^{\pi / 4} \frac{t}{\tan t} \cdot \sec ^2 t d t \] Put, \(\tan ^{-1} x=t\)…