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AP EAMCET · Maths · Differentiation

If \(f(x)=x^3+p x^2+q x\) is defined on \([0,2]\) such that \(f(0)=f(2)\) and \(f^{\prime}\left(1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)=0\), then \(p^2+q^2=\)

  1. A 13
  2. B 5
  3. C \(2+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  4. D 1
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(A) 13

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

Given, \(f(x)=x^3+p x^2+q x\) is defined on \([0,2]\) \[ \begin{array}{ll} f(0)=f(2) & \\ & 0=2^3+p(2)^2+q(2) \\ \Rightarrow & 4 p+2 q+8=0 \end{array} \]…