AP EAMCET · Maths · Limits
If \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}x\left(1+\frac{1}{2} \sin \left(\log x^2\right)\right), & x \neq 0 \\ 0, & x=0\end{array}\right.\), then
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}\)
- A is equal to \(f(0)\)
- B does not exist
- C is equal to \(\frac{1}{2}\)
- D is equal to \(\mathrm{f}(1)\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(B) does not exist
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{x\left(1+\frac{1}{2} \sin \left(\log x^2\right)\right)-0}{x}\) \(=\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} 1+\frac{1}{2} \sin \left(\log x^2\right)=1+\frac{1}{2} \sin \left(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \log x^2\right)\)…
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