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AP EAMCET · Maths · Definite Integration

If \(\int_0^1 f(x) d x=1, \int_0^1 x f(x) d x=a\) and \(\int_0^1 x^2 f(x) d x=a^2\), then \(\int_0^1(x-a)^2 f(x) d x\) is equal to

  1. A \(a^2\)
  2. B \(a^2+1\)
  3. C \(a^2-1\)
  4. D 0
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(D) 0

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

\[ \text { } \begin{aligned} & \int_0^1(x-a)^2 f(x)=\int_0^1\left(x^2 f(x)+a^2 f(x)-2 a x f(x)\right) d x \\ & =\int_0^1 x^2 f(x) d x+a^2 \int_0^1 f(x) d x-2 a \int_0^1 x f(x) d x \\ & =a^2+a^2(1)-2 a(a) \\ & =a^2+a^2-2 a^2=0 \end{aligned} \]
From AP EAMCET
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