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WBJEE · Maths · Definite Integration

Suppose \(M=\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \frac{\cos x}{x+2} d x\) \(N=\int_{0}^{\pi / 4} \frac{\sin x \cos x}{(x+1)^{2}} d x\) Then, the value of \((M-N)\) equals

  1. A \(\frac{3}{\pi+2}\)
  2. B \(\frac{2}{\pi-4}\)
  3. C \(\frac{4}{\pi-2}\)
  4. D \(\frac{2}{\pi+4}\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(D) \(\frac{2}{\pi+4}\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

Given, \(M=\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \frac{\cos x}{(x+2)} d x\) and \(\quad N=\int_{0}^{\sqrt{4}} \frac{\sin x \cos x}{(x+1)^{2}} d x\) \(\Rightarrow \quad N=\int_{0}^{\pi / 4} \frac{1}{2} \frac{\sin 2 x}{(x+1)^{2}} d x\) Put \(2 x=t \Rightarrow d x=\frac{d t}{2}\)…