ExamBro
ExamBro
WBJEE · Maths · Definite Integration

Let \(I_{n}=\int_{0}^{1} x^{n} \tan ^{-1} x d x .\) If \(a_{n} I_{n+2}+b_{n} I_{n}=c_{n}\) for all \(n \geq 1,\) then

  1. A \(a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}\) are in GP
  2. B \(b_{1}, b_{2}, b_{3}\) are in AP
  3. C \(c_{1}, c_{2}, c_{3}\) are in HP
  4. D \(a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}\) are in \(A P\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(D) \(a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}\) are in \(A P\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

We have, \(I_{n}=\int_{0}^{1} x^{n} \tan ^{-1} x d x\) \(=\left[\tan ^{-1} x \cdot \frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}\right]_{0}^{1}-\int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1} \cdot \frac{1}{1+x^{2}} d x\) \(=\frac{\pi}{4(n+1)}-\frac{1}{n+1} \int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{2} \cdot x^{n-1}}{1+x^{2}} d x\)…