AP EAMCET · Maths · Matrices
If \(A\) is a matrix such that
\(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 1 \\
3 & 2
\end{array}\right] A\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 1
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 1 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
then \(A\) is equal to
- A \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right]\)
- B \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}2 & 1\end{array}\right]\)
- C \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}1 & 0 \\ -1 & 1\end{array}\right]\)
- D \(\left[\begin{array}{r}2 \\ -3\end{array}\right]\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(D) \(\left[\begin{array}{r}2 \\ -3\end{array}\right]\)
Step-by-step Solution
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