ExamBro
ExamBro
AP EAMCET · Maths · Inverse Trigonometric Functions

If \(\sin ^{-1}\left(x-\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{4}-\ldots \infty\right)\)
\(+\cos ^{-1}\left(x^2-\frac{x^4}{2}+\frac{x^6}{4}-\ldots \infty\right)=\frac{\pi}{2}\) and \(0 < \mathrm{x} < \sqrt{2}\),
then \(x\) is equal to

  1. A \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  2. B \(1\)
  3. C \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
  4. D \(-1\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(B) \(1\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

Given that, \(\sin ^{-1}\left(x-\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^2}{4}-\ldots \infty\right)\) \(\cos ^{-1}\left(x-\frac{x^4}{2}+\frac{x^6}{4}-\ldots \infty\right)=\frac{\pi}{2}\) Here, \(\quad x-\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{4}-\ldots \infty\) Forms G.P. so its sum can be given as…