MHT CET · Maths · Mathematical Reasoning
The inverse of \(p \rightarrow(q \rightarrow r)\) is logically equivalent to
- A \(\mathrm{p} \rightarrow(\mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{r})\)
- B \((\mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{r}) \rightarrow \sim \mathrm{p}\)
- C \((p \vee q) \rightarrow r\)
- D \((\mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{r}) \rightarrow \mathrm{p}\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(D) \((\mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{r}) \rightarrow \mathrm{p}\)
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
Inverse of \(p \rightarrow(q \rightarrow r)\) is
\(\begin{aligned}
& \equiv \sim p \rightarrow \sim(q \rightarrow r) \\
& \equiv(q \rightarrow r) \rightarrow p
\end{aligned}\)
\(\ldots[\because q \rightarrow p \equiv \sim p \rightarrow q]\)
\(\begin{aligned}
& \equiv \sim p \rightarrow \sim(q \rightarrow r) \\
& \equiv(q \rightarrow r) \rightarrow p
\end{aligned}\)
\(\ldots[\because q \rightarrow p \equiv \sim p \rightarrow q]\)
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