MHT CET · Maths · Differential Equations
If \(\mathrm{y}=\mathrm{y}(x)\) satisfies \(\left(\frac{2+\sin x}{1+y}\right) \frac{\mathrm{dy}}{\mathrm{d} x}=-\cos x\). such that \(y(0)=2\), then \(y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) is equal to
- A \(4\)
- B \(3\)
- C \(2\)
- D \(1\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(D) \(1\)
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
\(\int \frac{\mathrm{dy}}{1+y} = \int -\frac{\cos x}{2+\sin x} \mathrm{d}x\) \(\ln|1+y| = -\ln|2+\sin x| + C\)
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