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MHT CET · Maths · Inverse Trigonometric Functions

If \(\sum_{r=1}^{50} \tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{2 r^2}=p\) then \(\tan p\) is

  1. A \(\frac {100}{101}\)
  2. B \(\frac {51}{50}\)
  3. C \(\frac {50}{51}\)
  4. D \(\frac {101}{102}\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(C) \(\frac {50}{51}\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

\(\begin{aligned} & \sum_{\mathrm{r}=1}^{50} \tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{2 \mathrm{r}^2}=\mathrm{p} \\ & \Rightarrow \sum_{\mathrm{r}=1}^{50} \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{4 \mathrm{r}^2}\right)=\mathrm{p} \\ & \Rightarrow \sum_{\mathrm{r}=1}^{50} \tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{(2 \mathrm{r}+1)-(2 \mathrm{r}-1)}{1+(2 \mathrm{r}+1)(2 \mathrm{r}-1)}\right]=\mathrm{p} \\ & \Rightarrow \sum_{\mathrm{r}=1}^{50}\left[\tan ^{-1}(2 \mathrm{r}+1)-\tan ^{-1}(2 \mathrm{r}-1)\right]=\mathrm{p} \\ & \Rightarrow \tan ^{-1}(101)-\tan ^{-1}(1)=\mathrm{p} \\ & \Rightarrow \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{101-1}{1+101}\right)=\mathrm{p} \\ & \Rightarrow \frac{100}{102}=\tan \mathrm{p} \\ & \Rightarrow \tan \mathrm{p}=\frac{50}{51}\end{aligned}\)