MHT CET · Maths · Probability
If p.m.f. of a r.v.X is \(P(X=x)=\frac{1}{10}\), for \(x=1,2,3, \ldots \ldots, 10=0\), otherwise, then \(\operatorname{Var}(x)\) is equal to
- A \(\frac{11}{2}\)
- B \(\frac{33}{4}\)
- C \(\frac{121}{4}\)
- D \(\frac{77}{2}\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(B) \(\frac{33}{4}\)
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
\(\operatorname{Var}(x)=\sum P_i x_i^2-\left(\sum P_i x_i\right)^2=\frac{1}{10}(1^2+2^2+3^2\) \(\ldots .+10^2)\) \(-\left\{\frac{1}{10}(1+2+3+\ldots . .+10)\right\}^2\)
\(=\frac{1}{10} \times \frac{10 \times 11 \times 21}{6}-\left(\frac{1}{10} \times \frac{10 \times 11}{2}\right)^2\)
\(=38.5-30.25=8.25=\frac{33}{4}\)
\(=\frac{1}{10} \times \frac{10 \times 11 \times 21}{6}-\left(\frac{1}{10} \times \frac{10 \times 11}{2}\right)^2\)
\(=38.5-30.25=8.25=\frac{33}{4}\)
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