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MHT CET · Maths · Differentiation

If \(\mathrm{f}(x)=\frac{\sin ^2 x}{1+\cot x}+\frac{\cos ^2 x}{1+\tan x}\), then the value of \(\mathrm{f}^{\prime}\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\) is equal to

  1. A 0
  2. B \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  3. C \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
  4. D \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(C) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

\(\mathrm{f}(x)=\frac{\sin ^2 x}{1+\frac{\cos x}{\sin x}}+\frac{\cos ^2 x}{1+\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}}\) \(\mathrm{f}(x)=\frac{\sin ^3 x}{\sin x+\cos x}+\frac{\cos ^3 x}{\sin x+\cos x}\)