MHT CET · Maths · Differentiation
If \(f(x)=\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{2 x}{1+x^2}\right)+\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}\right), x \in(1, \infty)\), then \(f^{\prime}(x)\)
- A \(\frac{-4}{1+x^2}\)
- B 0
- C \(\frac{2 x}{1-x^2}\)
- D \(\frac{4}{1+x^2}\)
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(B) 0
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
\(x \in (1, \infty) \implies \tan^{-1}(x) \in (\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2})\) \(\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2x}{1+x^2}\right) = \pi - 2\tan^{-1}(x)\)
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