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JEE Mains · Maths · STD 12 - 7.2 definite integral

The of value the integral \(\frac{48}{\pi^{4}} \int_{0}^{\pi}\left(\frac{3 \pi x ^{2}}{2}- x^{3}\right) \frac{\sin x }{1+\cos ^{2} x } dx\) is equal to

  1. A \(6\)
  2. B \(7\)
  3. C \(8\)
  4. D \(9\)
Verified Solution

Answer & Solution

Correct Answer

(A) \(6\)

Step-by-step Solution

Detailed explanation

\(I=\frac{48}{\pi^{4}} \int_{0}^{\pi} x^{2}\left(\frac{3 \pi}{2}-x\right) \frac{\sin x}{1+\cos ^{2} x} d x\) Apply king property \(I=\frac{48}{\pi^{4}} \int_{0}^{\pi}(\pi-x)^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+x\right) \frac{\sin x}{1+\cos ^{2} x} d x\) \((1) + (2)\)…