COMEDK · Maths · 6. Mathematical Induction
The statement \(P(n): ' 1 \times 1 !+2 \times 2 !+3 \times 3\) !
\(+\ldots+n \times n !=(n+1) !-1\) is
- A true for all \(n>1\)
- B not true for any \(n\)
- C true for all \(n \in N\)
- D None of these
Answer & Solution
Correct Answer
(C) true for all \(n \in N\)
Step-by-step Solution
Detailed explanation
\(P(1): ' 1 \times 1 !=(1+1) !-1\) ' is true. Let \(P(k):{ }^{\prime \prime} 1 \times 1 !+2 \times 2 !+3 \times 3 !\) \(+\ldots+k \times k !=(k+1) !-1^{\prime \prime}\) is true. Now, \(P(k+1): 1 \times 1 !+2 \times 2 !+\ldots\)…
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